Wow. You must really like this theory to argue it for like three years. 0_0

In any case though if you think she was literally raped then how do you explain the ending? She throws all the beans on the ground giving them away, demands her mother punish her like she did before and make her ugly again, and then apparently due to the punishment dissapeared. Are you saying the witch just had sex with them all right there? Lol. You can't separate the acts.

The original story may have been about that I don't know and the story may be metaphorical but in the context of this show where things such as curses and magic beans that make beanstalks clearly literally exist it isn't such a stretch to think the witch is worked up about her literal beans. Like the wolf and red I can see the witches story being metaphorical but as far as the actual characters go the man didn't ACTUALLY rape her. In that case the witches ending no longer makes any sense. She shows in last midnight that the mothers curse was literally for losing the beans.